I have seen some of the posts on this topic with a slightly algebraic geometric flavour, such as Zariski topology finer than product topology. I try to understand this from a purely topological viewpoint. So the question is, is it true, that the Zariski topology on $\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}$ is finer than the product of the Zariski topologies on $\mathbb{C}$?
I started with the observation that
$B = \big\{ U \subseteq \mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C} \; \vert \; U_1, U_2 \subset \mathcal{O}^{Z}_\mathbb{C}: U = \text{pr}_{1}^{-1}(U_1) \cap \text{pr}^{-1}_{2}(U_2) \big\}$
defines a basis of the product of the Zariski topologies, which I'll denote as $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}}$. With $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{C}}^{Z}$ I denoted the Zariski topology on $\mathbb{C}$. $\text{pr}_i$ are the canonical surjections for $\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}$. Let $A \subset \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}}$ be open, then there are $U_i \subseteq B$ such that $A = \bigcup_{i \in I} U_i$. Then there are open sets $V \subseteq \mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{C}\times \mathbb{C}}^{Z}$ such that $A \subseteq V$ is open. Thus, we have that $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}} \subseteq \mathcal{O}^{Z}_{\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}}$. Therefore, the product of the Zariski topology is finer than the product of the Zariski topologies on $\mathbb{C}$.
But I still need to show that this does not work out the other way around, such that $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}} \subset \mathcal{O}^{Z}_{\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}}$ is a real subset. I tried an argument with the Zariski topology not being Hausdorff, but I stuck with the construction of an open set being in $\mathcal{O}^{Z}_{\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}}$ but not in $\mathcal{O}_{\mathbb{C} \times \mathbb{C}}$. Thank you for your help in advance.