I saw a post https://mathoverflow.net/questions/98367/a-sum-of-eigenvalues that said
It is well-known that $\sum^{r}_{i = 1} \lambda_{i}(X)$ is convex.
and I saw an explanation in Boyd and Vandenberghe - "Convex Optimization", question 3.26(a) that said
$$\sum^{k}_{i = 1} \lambda_{i}(X) = \sup\{\operatorname{tr}(V^{T}XV) \mid V^{T}V = I\}.$$
The variational characterization shows that $f$ is the pointwise supremum of a family of linear functions $\operatorname{tr}(V^{T}XV )$
is an explanation for why it is convex.
But I don't really understand how the sup is the sum of the first $k$ eigenvalues and how that makes it convex.