Proposition: $x^n-a^n$ is divisible by $x-a$ for all n. Potential proof by induction (which I would like to know whether it is correct):
Suppose n=1. Then $x^n-a^n=x-a$, and $x-a$ is clearly divisible by $x-a$. So the proposition holds for n=1, the base case.
Now suppose the proposition holds for n=k. This means that $x^k-a^k$ is divisible by $x-a$.
Now we have to prove that the proposition holds for n=k+1. Then it has to be proved that $x^{k+1}-a^{k+1}$ is divisible by x-a. $x^{k+1}-a^{k+1}$ is the same as $x^k \cdot x - a^k \cdot a$, which is equivalent to $(x^k-a^k) \cdot ax$. However, it was already established that the proposition holds for n=k, so $x^k-a^k$ is divisible by x-a. This renders the expression $(x^k-a^k) \cdot ax$ divisible by x-a; when this expression is divided by x-a, only $ax$ is left.
I don't know if my proof is correct since I just learned induction.