I have a few doubts in the proof of existence of free groups given by Clara Loeh in page-22,23 of her Geometric Group theory book.
Theorem 2.2.7: Let S be a set. Then there exists a group freely generated by S. (By the previous proposition, this group is unique up to isomorphism.)
- When the equivalence is defined in page-22, is it implicitly assumed that $ s$ and $ \hat{s}$ are inverses?
$$\forall_{x,y \in A^*} \forall_{s \in S} xs \hat{s}y \sim y xy$$ $$\forall_{x,y \in A^*} \forall_{s \in S} x \hat{s} s y \sim xy$$
- In page-23, Clara defines a function which help us define inverse for general words. Here is what she gave exactly:
Inductively (over the length of sequences), we define a map $I:A^* \to A^* $ by $I(\epsilon) := \epsilon$ and
$I(sx) :=I(x) \hat{s}$
$I( \hat{s} x) : = I(x) s$
In the above why did she write 1. and 2.? Shouldn't just one of the equations be enough? My thinking is that in $A^*$ , $s$ and $\hat{s}$ are just elements in the set $A^*$.
Secondly, I am not sure if I understand this function in itself. Suppose I have a word $abc$ made up of letters $a,b,c$ then would it be correct to write $I(abc)= I(bc) \hat{a}$..? and then push it down till $I(abc)=\hat{c} \hat{b} \hat{a}$?
- In page-23 (again), I am confused at the part where she defines $\varphi^*$ which map from the set to words to a group. The idea can be understood by the diagram:
For every group G and every map$ \varphi: S −→ G$ there is a unique group homomorphism $\varphi: F(S) −→ G$ such that $\overline{\varphi} ◦ i = \varphi$. Given $\varphi$, we construct a map
$\phi^*: A^* \to G$
Inductively by:
$ \epsilon \to e$
$sx \to \varphi(s) \cdot \varphi^*(x)$
$ \hat{s} x \to ( \varphi(s))^{-1} \cdot \varphi^*(x)$
Again I am confused, why we need both two and three..? I think one is enough for similar reason said before.
Note:
- Free groups are defined by their universal property in the book.