The full question goes as follows: "Suppose W is finite-dimensional and T1, T2 $\in$ L(V,W). Prove that null(T1) = null(T2) if and only if there exists an invertible operator S $\in$ L(W) s.t. T1 = ST2.
I know that there already have been questions and answers for this particular question, but I am wondering if my proof is correct if I assume V and W are both finite-dimensional. Thanks in advance for reading and answering my question!
(->) Suppose null(T1) = null(T2). Then, dim(null(T1)) = dim(null(T2)).
According to the fundamental thm,
dim(range(T1)) = dim(V) - dim(null(T1)) = dim(V) - dim(null(T2)) = dim(range(T2)).
dim(range(T1)) = dim(range(T2)) implies that range(T1) and range(T2) are isomorphic, which warrants the existence of a isomorphism S that is invertible.
(<-) Suppose that such invertible operator S exists. Then, it implies that range(T1) and range(T2) are isomorphic. If so, dim(range(T1)) = dim(range(T2)).
Again, apply the fundamental thm to obtain that dim(null(T1)) = dim(null(T2)).
** I see that the above proof is very simple, but is this correct assuming that both V and W are finite-dimensional?