We have to show that for a positive sequence of random variables $X_n \geq 0$ and a random variable $X$ s.th. $X_n \overset{\mathbb{P}}{\rightarrow}X$ it follows that $\mathbb{P}(X \geq 0) = 1$. Additionally, let $\mathbb{P}(E) = 0$ be the set with probability of zero.
Here is my argument (i have the feeling it's not correct):
$$ X_n \overset{\mathbb{P}}{\rightarrow}X := lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \mathbb{P}(|X_n - X| > \epsilon) = 0, \text{ for } \epsilon > 0. $$
This implies that there exists an $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $\forall n \geq N$:
$$ \{|X_n - X| > \epsilon\} = E $$
otherwise $\mathbb{P}(\{|X_n - X| > \epsilon\}) > 0$. Or considering the compliment: there exists an $N \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $\forall n \geq N$:
$$ \{|X_n - X| \leq \epsilon\} = E^c $$
thus in the set with positive probability. Thus we can rewrite the equation:
\begin{align*} |X_n - X| \leq \epsilon &\Leftrightarrow -\epsilon \leq X_n - X \leq \epsilon \\ &\Leftrightarrow -\epsilon - X_n \leq - X \leq \epsilon - X_n \\ &\Leftrightarrow \epsilon + X_n \geq X \geq X_n - \epsilon \\ \end{align*}
Thus $X \geq X_n - \epsilon > 0 \Rightarrow \mathbb{P}(X \geq 0) = 1$, because $X_n \geq 0$.
Is that a correct argument? I have the feeling that I used an argument for almost sure convergence.