I'm working through the functional analysis book by Milman, Eidelman, and Tsolomitis, and I have a question. The book states a lemma that I'm a bit confused about:
A sequence of operators $T_n\in L(X, Y)$ (here, $X$ and $Y$ are Banach Spaces) converges strongly to an operator $T\in L(X,Y)$ if and only if
(i) the sequence $\{T_n x\}$ converges for any $x$ in a dense subset $M\subset X$;
(ii) there exists $C>0$ such that $\| T_n\|\leq C$.
My question is whether or not $M$ has to be a linear subspace. I think it does. The reason I think so is that the proof of the theorem says that we first define an operator $T_0$ by $$ T_0 x:= \lim_{n\to \infty} T_n x. $$ By the assumption that $T_n x$ converges on $M$, we have that the domain of an operator is $M$. Hence, $M$ must be a linear space. The proof then goes on to define an extension of $T_0$ by $$ Ty:= \lim_{n\to \infty} T_0 x_n, $$ where $x_n\to y$. Here we are using the density of $M$ and the boundedness of $T_0$ which is inherited from $\{T_n\}$. Even here though, to prove uniqueness of this limit under any sequence converging to $y$ we need the fact that $M$ is a subspace. The reason is that, if $\{z_n\}$ is any other sequence in $M$ converging to $y$, we have to consider the expression $$ \|T_0 x_n -T_0 z_n\|=\|T_0(x_n-z_n)\|\leq \|T_0\|\cdot \|x_n-z_n\|\to 0$$ since $\{x_n\}$ and $\{z_n\}$ both converge to $y$. We must have that the vector $x_n-z_n$ is in the domain of $T_0$ (i.e. $M$).
Anyways, I'm pretty sure that our dense subset $M$ must be a dense subspace for this to work. Can someone please tell me if this is correct. I'm 98% sure this is a typo in the statement of the lemma.