This is a math competition problem for college students in Sichuan province, China. As the title, calculate the limit $$\lim_{s\to0^+}\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\sin n}{n^s}.$$ It is clear that the Dirichlet series $\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\sin n}{n^s}$ is convergent for all complex number $\Re s>0$. Here we only consider the case of real numbers.
Let $$A(x)=\sum_{n\leq x}\sin n,$$ then we have that $$A(x)=\frac{\cos\frac{1}{2}-\cos([x]+\frac{1}{2})}{2\sin\frac{1}{2}},$$ here $[x]$ is the floor function. Obviously, $A(x)$ is bounded and $|A(x)|\leq\frac{1}{\sin(1/2)}$. Using Abel's summation formula, we have that $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\sin n}{n^s}=s\int_1^\infty\frac{A(x)}{x^{s+1}}\,dx =\frac{\cos\frac{1}{2}}{2\sin\frac{1}{2}}-s\int_1^\infty\frac{\cos([x]+\frac{1}{2})}{x^{s+1}}\,dx.$$
The integral $\int_1^\infty\frac{\cos([x]+\frac{1}{2})}{x^{s+1}}\,dx$ or $\int_1^\infty\frac{\cos([x])}{x^{s+1}}\,dx$ is also convergent for $s>-1$ (am I right? use Dirichlet's test)
My question: Is there an easy way to prove $$\lim_{s\to0^+}\int_1^\infty\frac{\cos([x])}{x^{s+1}}\,dx= \int_1^\infty\lim_{s\to0^+}\frac{\cos([x])}{x^{s+1}}\,dx= \int_1^\infty\frac{\cos([x])}{x}\,dx.$$ If the above conclusion is correct, we have that $$\lim_{s\to0^+}\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{\sin n}{n^s}=\frac{\cos\frac{1}{2}}{2\sin\frac{1}{2}}.$$
More generally, consider the Mellin tranform $g(s)=\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x^{s+1}}\,dx$, here $f(x)$ is continuous except integers and have left and right limit at integers.
If for $s=0$, the integral $\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x}\,dx$ is convergent, do we have that $$\lim_{s\to0^+}\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x^{s+1}}\,dx\stackrel{?}=\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x}\,dx\,$$(In Jameson's book The prime number theorem, page 124, there is a Ingham-Newman Tauberian thereom, but the conditions of the theorem there are slightly different from here.)
If the condition is strengthened to for all $s\geq-1/2$, $\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x^{s+1}}\,dx$ is convergent, is the following correct $$\lim_{s\to0^+}\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x^{s+1}}\,dx\stackrel{?}=\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x}\,dx\,$$ If this is correct, is there a simple way to prove it?
(2022/3/24/21:53) If the Dirichlet integral $\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x^s}dx$ converges at $s_0$, then it converges uniformly in $$|\arg(s-s_0)|\leq\alpha<\frac{\pi}{2}$$ for any fixed $0<\alpha<\frac{\pi}{2}$, and thus $$\lim_{s\to s_0^+}\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x^s}dx=\int_1^\infty\frac{f(x)}{x^{s_0}}dx.$$
For the uniform convergence of Dirichlet integral, see Uniform convergence about Dirichlet integral $f(s):=\int_1^\infty\frac{a(x)}{x^s}\,dx =\lim\limits_{T\to\infty}\int_1^T\frac{a(x)}{x^s}\,dx$