Consider the operator $A$ acting on $\mathbb{R}^n$ according to the rule $$(Ax)_k=x_{k-1}+x_{k+1}\quad 1\le k \le n,$$ with the convention $x_{0}=x_n$ and $x_{n+1}=x_1.$ Observe that $$ \langle Ax,x\rangle =2(x_1x_2+x_2x_3+\ldots +x_{n-1}x_n+x_nx_1).$$ Let $\theta ={2m\pi\over n},$ where $0\le m\le n-1.$ Consider the sequence $x^\theta$ with terms $x^\theta_k=\cos k\theta.$ As $x^\theta_0=1=x^\theta_n$ and $x^\theta_{n+1}=x^\theta_1$ in a natural way, we get $$Ax^\theta=(2\cos \theta )\,x^\theta,\quad \langle Ax^\theta,x^\theta\rangle = 2\cos \theta\, \|x^\theta\|^2.$$ The matrix $A$ is symmetric, therefore the vectors $x^\theta$ are orthogonal to each other for different values of $\cos\theta.$ For $\theta=0$ we get $x^0=(1,1,\ldots, 1).$ The question arises whether there is $\theta\neq 0, $ such that $0<\cos\theta<1.$ For $n\le 4$ it does not occur. But for $n=5$ it occurs with $\theta ={2\pi\over 5}.$ It also occurs for any $n\ge 5$ with $\theta ={2\pi \over n}.$ Summarizing the desired inequality is true in general only for $n\le 4.$