Let $a$ and $b$ satisfy $a \geq b>0, a+b=1$.
- Prove that if $m$ and $n$ are positive integers with $m<n$, then $a^{m}-$ $a^{n} \geq b^{m}-b^{n}>0$.
- For each positive integer $n$, consider a quadratic function $$g_{n}(x)=x^{2}-b^{n} x-a^{n} .$$ Show that $g(x)$ has two roots that are in between $-1$ and $1$ .
Hint: Use derivatives.
Question was given to me by my teacher.
I have successfully proved $(1)$ by considering a function $p(x) = a^x - b^x$ then working with its derivative involving the $\log$ function and provided data to reach the conclusion. (I admit that this idea is not original and is borrowed from the proof of $e^{\pi} > {\pi}^e$)
I couldn't figure out $(2)$. Writing $g(x) = x^2 - bx - a$ then its discriminant is $b^2 + 4a > 0$ by provided data so it does have distinct real roots. Checking the bounds $g(1) = 1 - b - a $ which is $0$ (by provided data) which doesn't lead anywhere and hence any attempt of IVT (or rather, Bolzano's Th.) is not possible.
So nothing conclusive is obtained but even if IVT held would it show that the roots are within $-1$ and $1$ ?
$\star$ Is there a theorem which shows that a polynomial must have two roots in some interval or is there some trivial deduction that I am missing on ?
Any hints/comments on how to proceed will suffice. Sorry if something is incorrect in the above reasoning.