Suppose $f_n:X\rightarrow[0,\infty]$ is measurable for $n=1,2,3,\dots$, $f_1\geq f_2\geq f_3\geq\cdots\geq 0$, $f_n(x)\rightarrow f(x)$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$, for every $x\in X$, and $f_1\in L^1(\mu)$. Prove that then $$\tag{*}\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\int_X f_n\,d\mu=\int_X f\,d\mu$$ and show that this conclusion does not follow if the condition "$f_1\in L^1(\mu)$" is omitted.
Let $E$ consist of the points $x\in X$ at which $f_1(x)<\infty$. By the dominated convergence theorem, $$\int_E f_n\,d\mu\rightarrow \int_E f\,d\mu\mbox{.}$$ Since $f_1\in L^1(\mu)$, $\mu(E^c)=0$, and hence (*) follows.
Let $X=\{1,2,3,\dots\}$, and let $\mu$ be the counting measure. For each $n$, define $f_n:X\rightarrow[0,\infty]$ by $$f_n(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{ll}\infty&(x\geq n)\\0&(x<n).\end{array}\right.$$ Then $\lim f_n=0$, and $\int_X f_n\,d\mu=\infty$ for all $n$.
Is this correct?