I once called a dense set an uncountable set. I was told this was wrong, as the set was dense, and not uncountable. I didn't have the mathematical knowledge to find this confusing, and instead thought I was just mistaken. I still reckon I'm mistaken, but now I don't understand why.
A set $X$ is dense iff $\forall x,z \in X$ where $x <z, \ \exists y \in X$ s.t. $x < y <z$.
A set is uncountable if you can't ever count the members in any subset of it. So, let's take the set of naturals. I of course can't count all of the members within the naturals, but I can count all the members in any finite subset of the naturals (of course, since the subset is finite).
The problem with an uncountable set, like the set of real numbers, is that finite subsets (that include all members between the lower and upper limits) don't exist. $|[x,z]| = \infty \ \forall x,z \in \Bbb R$ There's an infinite number of members between any two members, and thus all subsets are infinite, which makes counting impossible (hence, uncountable).
Now, maybe there's way to achieve this uncountability without the set being dense. I just don't see how. Surely, a dense set is an uncountable set and vice versa?
EDIT:
I took user Pilcrow's adivce, and looked at a proof of the countability of the rationals. If I understand correctly, a set being countable means that there is a formula or algorithm for the next member in line. So, for the rationals, that algorithm could be expressed like this:
$\frac ab$ is a rational. $n(\frac ab)$ is the next rational (next defined by an ordering not of the greatness kind).
$$n(\frac ab) = \begin{cases} \frac{a+1}{b} & a+1 < b \\ \frac{1}{b+1} & a +1 = b \end{cases}$$
This would create a countable, ordered multiset, of which the rationals would be a subset. Thus, the rationals are countable (I assume it's impossible to have uncountable subsets of countable sets).
From this, I gather that if a poset is dense, it just means that there is no formula/algorithm for the next member, if one is enumerating using the ordering of which the density arises from. To be concrete, $n(\frac ab)$ is undefined if its ordering is so that it is the next number greater than $\frac ab$. There is no such number, because the rationals are dense when using the greatness ordering.
So, now my question is, is this new understanding correct?