I have to prove the statement
$$\vdash (\varphi \rightarrow \psi) \rightarrow (\neg \varphi \lor \psi)$$ only using first order logical axioms (similar to the ones in the Hilbert System), modus ponens and the Deduction theorem. Does anyone know how to do this using either the Hilbert System or Axioms $L_1 - L_{11}$ from https://people.math.ethz.ch/~halorenz/4students/Literatur/FOLNutshell.pdf on page 30?
I already tried doing it using Counterposition or starting with the axiomatic system $\Phi = \{ (\varphi \rightarrow \psi) \}$ or $\Phi = \{ \varphi, \psi \}$ but none of this worked for me so far.
Edit: This was my closest attempt yet:
Starting with $\Phi = \{ \varphi, \psi \}$ we get:
$$\varphi_0: \varphi \qquad \in \Phi$$ $$\varphi_1: \psi \qquad \in \Phi$$ $$\varphi_2: \psi \rightarrow (\neg \varphi \lor \psi) \qquad \text{(using $L_7$)}$$ $$\varphi_3: \neg \varphi \lor \psi \qquad \text{(using $\varphi_1, \varphi_2$ and modus ponens)}$$
Using the Deduction Theorem twice we now get that $$\vdash \varphi \rightarrow (\psi \rightarrow (\neg \varphi \lor \psi)).$$
It looks close to what we want but honestly I think this approach is completely useless but still the closest I could get to what I wanted to prove.
Thanks for any kind of help!