In doing Ex 3.2 in Brezis's book of Functional Analysis, I found that it can be generalize to t.v.s.
Let $E$ be a locally convex t.v.s. and $(x_n)$ a sequence in $E$ such that $x_n \to a\in E$. Let $$ y_{n}=\frac{1}{n}\left(x_{1}+x_{2}+\cdots+x_{n}\right). $$ Then $y_n \to a$.
Could you have a check on my attempt?
I posted my proof separately so that I can accept my own answer and thus remove my question from unanswered list. If other people post answers, I will happily accept theirs.