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In an old exercise sheet there was the following Lie group:

$$G = \left\{ \begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ 0 & a^{-1}\end{pmatrix} \Big|\ a> 0\ \text{and}\ b\in \mathbb R\right\}$$

and in order to see whether i understood things correctly, I wanted to determine its corresponding Lie algebra $\frak g$. However, I don't exactly know how to approach this problem.

What I've tried:

My first naive approach was to consider $G$ as a Lie subgroup of $\operatorname{GL}_2(\mathbb R)$ and use the one-parameter subgroup $$\gamma(t) = e^{tA}$$ since $$A \in {\frak{g}} \iff e^{tA} \in G\quad \forall t\in \mathbb R$$

However, I'm not sure how to proceed from here since, unlike in the examples of the common Lie subgroups $O(n), \operatorname{SO}(n)$ or $\operatorname{GL}_n(\mathbb R)$, I don't see a straight forward property of elements of $G$ that would be of help in order to use the exponential map accordingly.


My second thought was choosing a one-parameter subgroup $$\gamma\colon \mathbb R\to G$$ s.t. $\gamma(0) = E$, one possible one-parameter subgroup would be $$\gamma(t) = \begin{pmatrix} 1+t & 0 \\ 0 & (1+t)^{-1}\end{pmatrix}$$

Now clearly $\gamma(0) = E$. But now I'm not entirely sure. I thought about considering $\gamma'(0)$ in order to obtain a tangent vector at $E$ and then determine the unique corresponding left-invariant vector field $\widetilde X$ via $$\widetilde X(H) = dL_H(\gamma'(0))$$ where $H$ denotes a fixed but arbitrary element of $G$ and $dL_H$ is the push-forward (the differential) of the left-translation map $$L_H\colon G\to G,\ A\mapsto HA$$

My question:

Would my second attempt somehow be reasonable? Or do I confuse some things?

Additionally, I'd like to ask whether someone could give me a hint regarding my first approach (embedding $G\hookrightarrow \operatorname{GL_2}(\mathbb R)$)

Thanks for any help.

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1 Answer 1

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You can just think of $\mathfrak{g}$ as the tangent space to $G$ at the identity. What do you do then? You consider $$\begin{pmatrix} a & b \\ 0 & a^{-1} \end{pmatrix}$$with $a>0$ and $b\in \Bbb R$, pretend that $a$ and $b$ depend on a parameter $t$, assume that $a(0)=1$ and $b(0)=0$, write (say) $\dot{a}(0)= r$ and $\dot{b}(0)=s$ with $r,s\in \Bbb R$, and take the derivative with respect to $t$ at $t=0$ to obtain a generic element of $\mathfrak{g}$. Since $(a^{-1})^{\boldsymbol \cdot} = -\dot{a}a^{-2}$, it follows that $$\mathfrak{g} \cong \left\{ \begin{pmatrix} r & s \\ 0 & -r \end{pmatrix} \mid r,s\in \Bbb R\right\}.$$

Your $G$ is a subgroup of ${\rm GL}(2,\Bbb R)$, so $\mathfrak{g}$ is a subalgebra of $\mathfrak{gl}(2,\Bbb R)$. In particular, $\exp^G = \exp^{{\rm GL(2,\Bbb R)}}\big|_{\mathfrak{g}}$.

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    $\begingroup$ Yes, exactly, but $r$ and $s$ are the derivatives evaluated at $t=0$. Each Lie group has its own exponential map. I am saying that the exponential map of the group $G$ equals the exponential map of the ${\rm GL}(2,\Bbb R)$ restricted to $\mathfrak{g}$. Your second approach requires a lot more of work, because you'd have to do it for one-parameter subgroups realizing all initial velocities in $T_{{\rm Id}_2}G$, but you chose a single one which has no reason to be special at all. $\endgroup$
    – Ivo Terek
    Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 17:31
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    $\begingroup$ To elaborate further, what you tried to do was what I did with $a(t)=1+rt$ and $b(t)=st$. But the curves $a$ and $b$ don't need to define together a one-parameter subgroup. We're computing a single tangent space to $G$ and the value of the differential of a function at a single tangent vector doesn't depend on the curve chosen to realize such vector. $\endgroup$
    – Ivo Terek
    Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 17:33
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    $\begingroup$ Wow, thanks so much. Your help is greatly appreciated. I will try to work it out appropriately and maybe return to your answer in the next couple of hours or at latest tomorrow. Please give me some additional time to fully appreciate what you did but i will gladly accept your answer eventually. Thanks so much! $\endgroup$
    – Zest
    Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 17:40
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    $\begingroup$ Good luck! Let me know if you get stuck on anything. $\endgroup$
    – Ivo Terek
    Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 18:00
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    $\begingroup$ I don't see any quick solution with exp right now. But if you know what a generic element of $G$ looks like, it doesn't matter, the strategy from the answer should always work. $\endgroup$
    – Ivo Terek
    Commented Feb 6, 2022 at 4:15

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