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Please do check my proof, and in case, tell me how to make it more professional.

Additionally I'm not sure if the statement ($A$ if $B$) means $A\implies B$ or $B\implies A$.

Problem:

Let $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n$ be a convergent series. Show that $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}|a_n|$ diverges if $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a^2_n$ diverges.

My Solution:

Since $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}a_n$ converges, it must be true that $\lim_{n\to \infty}a_n=0.$ Then for some $n_0$: for all $n>n_0$, $|a_n|<1$.

Then it is true that $a^2_n<|a_n|$ for all $n>n_0$.

Hence $\sum_{n=n_0+1}^{\infty}a_n^2 < \sum_{n=n_0+1}^{\infty}|a_n| \implies \sum_{n=n_0+1}^{\infty}|a_n|$ diverges.

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    $\begingroup$ Your proof is fine and quite professional too! $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 12:06
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    $\begingroup$ ($A$ if $B$) means $B\implies A$. $\endgroup$
    – gpassante
    Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 12:14
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    $\begingroup$ Personally, I don't really like the inequality $\sum_{n=n_0+1}^{\infty}a_n^2 < \sum_{n=n_0+1}^{\infty}|a_n| $ because that is equivalent to $+\infty < \sum_{n=n_0+1}^{\infty}|a_n|$. There is a small flaw with the strict inequality and it doesn't say which theorem you are using on sequences or series. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 12:33
  • $\begingroup$ How may I make it better then? What kind of theorem did I use? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 12:39
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    $\begingroup$ Here you have at least two possibilities: 1) $\forall n>n_0, 0\leq a_n^2 <|a_n|$, so from the comparison test of series with non-negative terms ... 2) $\forall N>n_0$, $\sum_{n=n_0+1}^{N}a_n^2 < \sum_{n=n_0+1}^{N}|a_n|$ and $\lim_{N\rightarrow +\infty}\sum_{n=n_0+1}^{N}a_n^2 =+\infty$, we deduce ... $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 5, 2022 at 12:49

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To answer your first question, $A$ if $B$ means $A\impliedby B$, i.e. $B\implies A$.

Secondly, your proof looks fine, and your idea is great. Here, however, it would probably also be a good idea to include what theorem you used for the comparison at the end, i.e. the comparison test for positive series. The main reason here is that your inequality is not completely justified in it's own right. So consider

$$\sum_{n=n_0+1}^N a_n^2 < \sum_{n=n_0+1}^N \left| a_n\right|.$$

This is all fine because you're dealing with finite sums. However if you want to take this to the limit as $N\to\infty$, this strict inequality becomes nonstrict, as the two could potentially be equal in the limit (and in fact here they are equal, as both are infinite).

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