$\def\Q{\mathbf{Q}}$ $\def\N{\mathbf{N}}$ $\def\Z{\mathbf{Z}}$ $\def\I{\mathbf{I}}$ $\def\Fs{F_\sigma}$ $\def\Gd{G_\delta}$
Baire's Theorem tells us that $\Q$ is not a $\Gd$ set. However the set of integers $\Z$ is $\Gd$ by the following collection of sets: $$\Z = \bigcap_{n \in \N}\bigcup_{m \in \Z}{{\left(m-\frac{1}{n},m+\frac{1}{n} \right)}}$$ I want to understand why a similar cover for $\Q$ fails to work. Baire's Theorem, although a valid explanation, is somewhat philosophically unsatisfying.
$$\Q \overset{?}{=} \bigcap_{n \in \N}\bigcup_{q \in \Q}{{\left(q-\frac{1}{n},q+\frac{1}{n} \right)}}$$
To look at what it would mean if there was an irrational number $x \notin \Q$ in this set: If it is in this set, then it was initially in some interval centred at some rational number $q$. But as $n$ gets arbitrarily large, eventually the neighbourhood around $q$ will become small enough that it will no longer contain $x$. This almost feels like it could qualify as a contradiction but I guess it's still possible for $x$ to be in infinitely many intervals. It just looks very counter-intuitive. If there was a direct way to construct an irrational $x \notin \Q$ that is in this set, then that would be philosophically satisfying.
Final Remark. To anyone that wants to appeal to the length of the set or Lebesgue measure $\neq 0$ or something related to that,
- I am not familiar with any of these notions formally, so I'll likely get more confused by it.
- I could modify the construction like this:
$$\Q \overset{?}{=} \bigcap_{n \in \N}\bigcup_{r=1}^{\infty}{{\left(q_r-\frac{1}{n \cdot 2^r},q_r+\frac{1}{n \cdot 2^r} \right)}}$$ where $\left\{q_1,q_2,q_3 \dots \right\}$ is an enumeration of $\Q$. This set looks to have zero "length" (by my informal understanding).