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I wish to prove for $X_1,\dots,X_n$ i.i.d. Cauchy($\theta,1$) random variables that there doesn't exist a UMP for $H_0: \theta = 0$ against $H_1: \theta>0$.

For $\theta_1<\theta_2$, NP tests $(\varphi_1)$ for $H_0: \theta = 0$ against $H_1: \theta=\theta_1$ and $(\varphi_2)$ $H_0: \theta = 0$ against $H_1: \theta=\theta_2$ should produce the respective critical regions $$\prod_{i=1}^n \frac{1+(x_i-\theta_1)^2}{1+x_i^2} < k$$

and

$$\prod_{i=1}^n \frac{1+(x_i-\theta_2)^2}{1+x_i^2} < k$$

I'm at a bit of a loss how to proceed from here. How do I show with rigor that these regions are not equal?

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  • $\begingroup$ Suppose $n=1$. Taking specific values like $\theta_1=1,\theta_2=2$ might help to see that the most powerful tests are different. $\endgroup$ Jan 24, 2022 at 8:10
  • $\begingroup$ @StubbornAtom Thanks for your comment. From that, however, it would seem to me trivial to show that the first inequality is different from the second inequality, and that the proof is basically done, correct? $\endgroup$ Jan 24, 2022 at 8:30
  • $\begingroup$ I would think so, at least for $n=1$. $\endgroup$ Jan 24, 2022 at 9:08

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