A graded ring is a ring $S$ together with a family $(S_{d})_{d\geq 0}$ of subgroups of the additive group of $S$, such that $S=\bigoplus_{d\geq 0}S_{d}$ and $S_{e}S_{d}\subseteq S_{e+d}$ for all $e,d\geq 0$.
I am having (and seems like always having) trouble to understand the part $S=\bigoplus_{d\geq 0}S_{d}$ as abelian groups.
Does this mean the following?
Every $s\in S$ can be written as $s=(x_{0},x_{1},x_{2},\cdots)$ where $x_{i}=x_{i}(s)$ is uniquely determinted by $s$, $x_{d}\in S_{d}$ for each $d$, and only finitely number of $x_{d}$ are nonzero.
If this is correct, why would many resources I find consider $s=\sum_{d\geq 0}x_{d}$, where $x_{d}=x_{d}(s)$ is uniquely determined by $s$, $x_{d}\in S_{d}$ and only finitely finitely number of $x_{d}$ are nonzero?
Are these two things the (essentially) same? If so, then I have trouble making them compatible with the ring multiplication.
For example, if we let $s,r\in S$, then we can write $s=(x_{0},x_{1},x_{2},\cdots)$ and $r=(y_{0},y_{1},y_{2},\cdots)$, so that $$sr=(x_{0}y_{0},x_{1}y_{1},x_{2}y_{2},\cdots),$$ so if the above two notions are equivalently, $sr$ should correspond to a sum $\sum_{d\geq 0}x_{d}y_{d}.$ However, if we write $s=\sum_{d\geq 0}x_{d}$ and $r=\sum_{d\geq 0}y_{d}$, then $$sr\neq \sum_{d\geq 0}x_{d}y_{d}.$$ Right?
This confuses me a lot. For example, in this post, Definition of graded rings, the argument is writing $1=\sum_{d\geq 0}x_{d}$ and then consider $x_{0}=x_{0}1=\sum_{d\geq 0}x_{d},$ which will give $x_{0}=x_{0}x_{d}$ for all $d\geq 0$.
However, if we do this analogously to vector notions, then we write $1=(x_{0},x_{1},\cdots, )$ so $$(x_{0},0,0,\cdots)=x_{0}=1x_{0}=(x_{0}x_{0}, x_{1}x_{0},\cdots),$$ which only gives us $$x_{0}=x_{0}x_{0}, x_{0}x_{d}=0\ \text{for all}\ d>0.$$
So in my view I do not think these notions coincide. Am I missing something here?
In "An introduction to the theory of groups", Rotman gives Lemma 10.4 in page 310:
Let $\{A_{k},k\in K\}$ be a family of subgroups of a group $G$, where $K$ is an index set. Then, the following are equivalent:
$G\cong\bigoplus_{k\in K}A_{k}$;
Every $g\in G$ has a unique expression of the form $g=\sum_{k\in K}a_{k}$ where $a_{k}\in A_{k}$, $k$ are distinct and $a_{k}\neq 0$ for only finitely many $k$.
$G=\langle \bigcup_{k\in K}A_{k}\rangle$ and for each $j\in K$, $A_{j}\cap\langle\bigcup_{k\neq j}A_{k}\rangle=0$.
So can I just consider $\bigoplus_{d\geq 0}S_{d}=\langle \bigcup_{d\geq 0}S_{d}\rangle$ such that $S_{d}\cap \langle \bigcup_{e\neq d}S_{d}\rangle=0$? Or For instance, the ideal $S_{+}:=\bigoplus_{d>0}S_{d}$ is just $\langle\bigcup_{d>0}S_{d}\rangle$ with the similar trivial intersection?