I know this is a trivial question but I want to make sure I'm not missing anything: We have a biased 6-sided die, which brings any of the 6 numbers with equal probability in the first roll, but in the second and all subsequent rolls, brings the previous result with probability $\frac {1}{2}$ and all others with probability $\frac {1}{10}$.
The question is: Suppose we get a 4 in the first roll; what is the probability we also get a 4 in the 3rd roll? In the 4th? And so on.
If we get a 4 in the 1st roll, then for the 2nd roll we have $\frac {1}{2}$ probability to get a 4 and $\frac {1}{10}$ for all other numbers in the 2nd roll.
So in the 3rd roll, we already have the results of the previous roll of getting a 4 with probability $\frac {1}{2}$, so now the probability is $\frac {1}{4}$?