Is the integral operator $I: L^1([0,1])\to L^1([0,1]), f\mapsto (x\mapsto \int_0^x f \,\mathrm d\lambda)$ compact?
For $I: L^p([0,1]) \to C([0,1])$ with $p\in (1,\infty]$ this can be shown quite easily using Hölder's inequality and the compactness criterion in the Arzelà-Ascoli-Theorem (see also the first example on Wikipedia).
I wonder whether the statement holds also for $p=1$. However, we cannot just apply Arzelà-Ascoli here, because a bounded sequence $(f_n)_{n\in \mathbb N}$ in $(L^1([0,1]), \lVert\cdot\rVert_{L^1})$ is not necessarily equicontinuous (as shown here). Moreover, $I: L^1([0,1]) \to C([0,1])$ is not compact as discussed in the comments.
Edit: As answered in the comments, $I: L^1([0,1])\to C([0,1])$ is not compact. Therefore, I removed this aspect of the question.