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I stumbled upon an exercise which goes as follows :

Let $f \in L^2(\mathbb R^+)$, show that $\int_0^x f(t)\text{d}t = o\left(\sqrt x\right)$.

  1. Cauchy-Schwarz inequality gives the fact that $\int_0^x f = O\left(\sqrt x\right)$
  2. For decreasing functions, the results holds since $xf(x)^2 \leq \int_x^{2x} f^2 = o(1)$.
  3. Simple limit examples such as $f(t) = \dfrac 1 {\sqrt t\ln(t)}$ or $f(t) = \displaystyle\sum_{k} \dfrac{1_{[k,k+1]}}{\sqrt k}$ advocate for the result.

However I cannot produce a proof of that result nor find any counterexample, I don't even know what to believe. Given the source of the problem, a proof, if there is, should be elementary.

Happy Hollidays

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  • $\begingroup$ May I ask what the source is? $\endgroup$ Dec 25, 2021 at 0:29
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    $\begingroup$ @CalvinKhor : compendium of exercises for french "classe préparatoire" math students (~20 yo). Some statements are false, which makes me cautious. Link (in french) madore.org/~david/math/kholles/annee97_spe/ex97_e24.dvi $\endgroup$
    – B. Pillet
    Dec 25, 2021 at 0:34
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    $\begingroup$ I haven’t worked the details, but there might be a way to use decreasing rearrangements cf en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Symmetric_decreasing_rearrangement $\endgroup$ Dec 25, 2021 at 0:43
  • $\begingroup$ Note that for $f$ in $L^2 \cap L^p$ with $1<p<2$ we get improved asymptotics of $\int_0^x f(t) dt$ as $x\to \infty$, which satisfies the claim. Now we use the fact that $L^2 \cap L^p$ is dense in $L^2$. $\endgroup$ Dec 25, 2021 at 0:51

2 Answers 2

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To elaborate on my comment. Fix an arbitrary $f\in L^2$ and let $g\in L^2 \cap L^p$ for some $1<p<2$. A simple triangle inequality followed by Hölder's inequality gives

$$ \lvert \int_0^x f(t)dt \rvert \leq \lvert \lvert f-g\rvert \rvert_{L^2}\sqrt{x} + \lvert \lvert g \rvert \rvert_{L^p} x^{1-1/p}. $$ This implies that $$ \limsup_{x \to \infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}} \lvert \int_0^x f(t) dt \rvert \leq \lvert \lvert f-g\rvert \rvert_{L^2} \qquad \forall g \in L^2 \cap L^p. $$ Using the fact that $ L^2 \cap L^p$ is dense in $L^2$, we can take the infimum of all such $g$'s, thus proving the claim.

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  • $\begingroup$ (The comment you are elaborating on has disappeared) $\endgroup$ Dec 25, 2021 at 3:08
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For any $0 < a < x$, using the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality one has $$\bigg|\int_0^x f(t) dt\bigg| \leq \int_0^a |f(t)| dt + \int_a^x |f(t)| dt $$ $$ \leq \int_0^a |f(t)| dt + \bigg(\int_a^x|f(t)|^2 dt\bigg)^{1/2} (x - a)^{1 \over 2}$$ Given any $\epsilon > 0$ one can choose $a$ so that $$\bigg(\int_a^{\infty}|f(t)|^2 dt\bigg)^{1/2} < {\epsilon \over 2}$$ Thus for such $a$ one has $$\bigg|\int_0^x f(t) dt\bigg| \leq \int_0^a |f(t)| dt + {\epsilon\over 2}x^{1 \over 2}$$ So if $x$ is large enough one has the desired result that $$\bigg|\int_0^x f(t) dt\bigg| \leq \epsilon x^{1 \over 2}$$

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    $\begingroup$ We're taking $x \to \infty$, not $x \to 0$. $\endgroup$ Dec 25, 2021 at 2:15
  • $\begingroup$ Ok I changed to the $x \rightarrow \infty$ case. $\endgroup$
    – Zarrax
    Dec 25, 2021 at 3:48
  • $\begingroup$ (+1) This is an explicit version of the other answer by putting $\require{unicode}g=f \unicode{x1D7D9}_{[0,a]}$ and sending $a\to\infty$ $\endgroup$ Dec 25, 2021 at 13:04
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    $\begingroup$ @CalvinKhor Well, there is one distinction... we're not using $L^p$ for $p < 2$ or using Holder's inequality... instead we just use that $f {\mathbb 1}_{[0,a]}$ converge to $f$ in $L^2$. $\endgroup$
    – Zarrax
    Dec 25, 2021 at 19:49

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