Warning: Contains erroneous definitions. See accepted answer.
I want to understand that the inner product is a positive definite metric. A metric (a.k.a distance function) is defined as a map $d: M \times M \to \mathbb{R}$ for some topological space $M$ and $\{x,y,z\} \subset M$, such that:
$$ \begin{align*} d(x,y) &\geq 0 \\ d(x,y) &= 0 \Leftrightarrow x = y \\ d(x,y) &= d(y,x) \\ d(x,y) &\leq d(x,z) + d(z,y) \end{align*} $$
An inner product is defined for $\{u,v,w\} \subset M$ as an operator $\langle \cdot,\cdot \rangle: M \times M \to \mathbb{R}$ that satisfies:
$$ \begin{align*} \langle v,w \rangle &\geq 0 \\ \langle v,w \rangle &= 0 \Leftrightarrow v = w = 0 \\ \langle v,w \rangle &= \langle w,v \rangle \\ \langle u+v,w \rangle &= \langle u,w \rangle + \langle v,w \rangle \\ \langle \alpha v,w \rangle &= \alpha \langle v,w \rangle \\ \end{align*} $$
Please correct me if the definitions are wrong. Clearly, this operator satisfies the first three conditions of a metric. It is not as obvious to me that the last two conditions, which enforce linearity of the inner product, also enforce the triangle inequality.
I have seen proofs that the Euclidean norm obeys $\lVert x + y \rVert \leq \lVert x \rVert + \lVert y \rVert$, but I don't think that is what I'm looking for. I understand that the inner product always induces a norm, however it seems to me that those are two distinct metrics. If the inner product is also a metric, then it should be possible to prove that using only the definitions provided above.
Using consistent notation, I want to be satisfied that:
$$ \langle u,v \rangle \leq \langle u,w \rangle + \langle w,v \rangle $$
Or, equivalently, that $\langle u,v \rangle \leq \langle u + w, v \rangle$. I can see that the equality holds for the trivial case of $u = v = 0$, but I'm not sure where to go from there. Or am I completely wrong and only $\sqrt{\langle u,v \rangle}$ is a metric, and not $\langle u,v \rangle$ itself?