The unique factorisation theorem for positive integers states that every positive integer can be uniquely expressed as a product of primes.
What does "uniqueness" mean here? Let $n\in \mathbb{Z}^{+}$ and $n = {p_1} {p_2} \ldots {p_r}= {q_1}{q_2}\ldots {q_s}$ be any two factorisations of $n$ as product of primes. Then the uniqueness here simply means that the multisets $\left[p_1, p_2, \ldots, p_r \right]= \left[q_1,q_2, \ldots , q_s\right]$
So far so good. Now, I was wondering if there's a way to write the unique factorisation for any non-zero integer $n$. I guess you may write the prime factorisation of $n<0$ as the prime factorisation of $|n|$ with a "minus sign" but I'm not sure what exactly would remain unique about it then. Because $-1 = (-1)^3=(-1)^5 = \ldots$. (The last part is similar to prime factorisation of $n≠0$ discussed in Chapter 1, Theorem 1 of A Classical Introduction to Modern Number Theory by Ireland and Rosen).
For the record, unlike Ireland & Rosen where it takes that: If $p$ is a prime then $-p$ is also prime, I define primes to be positive integers having two distinct positive divisors, $1$ and $p$ to avoid running into problems like $6= 2 \cdot 3 =(-2)(-3)$ for example. But is there a more natural generalisation of unique factorisation theorem to every non-zero integer? I guess I should also mention that I have not studied Ring Theory yet, just in case. So layman language would be very appreciated.