I'm trying to understand the SVD of a real symmetric matrix.
Let $A$ be our $n\times n$ real symmetric matrix. And let an SVD be $A=U\Sigma V^T$.
Let $u_i$'s and $v_i$'s be the columns of $U$ and $T$
In the comment https://math.stackexchange.com/a/22832/764199, it says $u_i=\pm v_i$.
I could not get it why it's the case?
For example here https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3683742/764199 it says columns of $U$ and $V$ are eigenvectors of $A^2$, so they are eigenvectors of $A$. But this is not correct in general.
Addition:
For instance at https://math.berkeley.edu/~hutching/teach/54-2017/svd-notes.pdf, Example 2.2 there is the following explanation:
If $A$ is real symmetric matrix, then we can obtain an SVD from the eigenvalue decomposition $A=PDP^{-1}$. In that case, we can obtain $v_i=\pm u_i$. But how do we know that we can obtain every SVD from an eigenvalue decomposition?
Addition 2: Because we can say it for the SVD obtained from the eigenvalue decomposition, it suffices to show that, as it's written in Wikipedia page, "the SVD is unique up to arbitrary unitary transformations applied uniformly to the column vectors of both $U$ and $V$ spanning the subspaces of each singular value" to complete our proof. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Singular_value_decomposition
But I couldn't find the proof of that "uniquenes up to" statement.