I have a question about a joint distribution calculated in a paper I am reading.
There are three random variable a, b and c such that $$ a,b,c \in \{+1,-1\} $$ and then the joint distribution is given by: $$ p(a,b,c) = \frac{1}{8}(1 + aE_{A} + bE_{B} + cE_{C} + abE_{AB} + acE_{AC} + bcE_{BC} + abcE_{ABC})$$ where $E_{A}$, $E_{B}$ and $E_{C}$ are the single-party marginals, $E_{AB}$, $E_{BC}$ and $E_{AC}$ the two-party marginals, and $E_{ABC}$ is the three-body correlator.
I feel like this should be something I should have seen in an introductory course on probability but I can't seem to prove it. Also if I convince myself that it's just adding up all the possible cases, I think 1 should be part of the other expected values (i.e. it is already considered in them) so I don't see the point in adding it separately. Also would we have the same expression if the possible values were $\{+1,0\}$ (or any other set of size 2) ?
I am used to the notation $E$ as the expected value, but this is totally unrelated to that and it is about marginals. Am I correct?
I would be pleased to see a complete proof or a link to study this fact.
It also adds:
Note that the positivity of $p(a,b,c)$ implies constraints on marginals, in particular $p(+ + +) + p(−−−) ≥ 0$ implies $$ E_{AB} + E_{AC} + E_{BC} ≥ −1.$$
which I don't understand.