Which is the correct way for expressing the $n$th power of a cosine as a series of cosines without any exponent?
By using the Euler's formula
$\cos^n{(\theta)}=\left( \frac{e^{j\theta}+e^{-j\theta}}{2} \right)^n= \frac{1}{2^n}\left( e^{j\theta}+e^{-j\theta} \right)^n=\frac{1}{2^n}\left( z+z^{-1} \right)^n.$
with $z=e^{j\theta}$.
Since the term $\left( z+z^{-1} \right)^n$ is the $n$th power of a binomial, I could express it using the binomial identity, thus
$\cos^n{(\theta)} = \frac{1}{2^n} \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k} z^k(z^{-1})^{n-k} = \frac{1}{2^n} \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k} z^{2k-n}.$
If we expand the expression above, we obtain
$\cos^n{(\theta)}=\frac{1}{2^n}\Bigg ( z^{-n} + \binom{n}{1}z^{-(n-2)} + \binom{n}{2}z^{-(n-4)} + \dots + \binom{n}{2}z^{n-4} + \binom{n}{1}z^{(n-2)} + z^n \Bigg )$
which can be rewritten as
$\cos^n{(\theta)}=\frac{1}{2^n} \Bigg ( (z^{-n} + z^n) + \binom{n}{1} \left(z^{-(n-2)} + z^{(n-2)}\right) + \binom{n}{2}\left( z^{-(n-4)} + z^{(n-4)}\right) + \dots \Bigg ) $
Finally, since $z=e^{j\theta}$
$\cos^n{(\theta)}=\frac{1}{2^n} \Bigg ( (e^{-jn\theta} + e^{jn\theta}) + \binom{n}{1} \left(e^{j(n-2)\theta} + e^{-j(n-2)\theta}\right) + \binom{n}{2}\left( e^{j(n-4)\theta} + e^{-j(n-4)\theta}\right) + \dots \Bigg )$
By applying the Euler's formula once again, we obtain
$\cos^n{(\theta)}=\frac{2}{2^{n}} \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k} \cos{((n-2k)\theta)}.$
Unfortunately, if I plug n=2, I obtain
$\cos^2{(\theta)}= \cos{(2\theta)} + 1.$
instead of the well-known result
$\cos^2{(\theta)}= \frac{1}{2}(\cos{(2\theta)} + 1).$
a) Why my result is scaled by a factor of 2 ? b) Is the correct general formula $\cos^n{(\theta)}=\frac{1}{2^{n}} \sum_{k=0}^n \binom{n}{k} \cos{((n-2k)\theta)}.$ c)If so, why ?