I am trying to answer the following question:
Suppose a function $f$ has a measurable domain and is continuous except at a finite number of points. Is $f$ necessarily measurable?
And I found this answer online:
"Let $E$ denote the (Lebesgue) measurable domain of $f$ and define $$E_0 = \{x \in E| f \text{ is not continuous at } x \}$$
Since $E_0$ is finite, $m(E_0) = 0$ and $f$ is measurable on $E_0.$ By proposition $3,$ $f$ is measurable on $E \sim E_0$ as it is continuous on this set. We conclude from proposition $5(ii)$ that $f$ is measurable on $E.$"
My question is:
Why $f$ restricted to the set of its discontinuities $E_0$ is measurable? by what theorem, proposition or logical justification?