I have been reading "Introductory algebraic number theory" by Alaca and Williams, and in the opening chapters they use the quadratic domains $\mathbb{Z}+\mathbb{z}(\sqrt{m})$ for non-square $m$ and $\mathbb{Z}+\mathbb{Z}\Big(\frac{1+\sqrt{m}}{2}\Big)$ where $m\equiv1 \mod{4}$ and non-square.
In the chapter on Euclidean domains, it defines and proves a number of results about the norms $\phi_m$ where for $x,y \in \mathbb{Q}, \phi_m(x+y\sqrt{m})=|x^2-my^2|$ where $m$ is now a squarefree integer, and go into much detail about conditions under which e.g. $\mathbb{Z}+\mathbb{Z}(\sqrt{m})$ is a Euclidean domain with respect to this function, but only for for squarefree $m$.
My question is: Why do we make this distinction? As far as I can tell, there is no reason to exclude, for example, $\mathbb{Z}+\mathbb{Z}(\sqrt{8})$. $\phi_8$ appears to behave in all the ways we want it to and seems to be a candidate for a euclidean function on the domain. I know that this is a subdomain of $\mathbb{Z}+\mathbb{Z}(\sqrt{2})$, but the book itself has exercises where it is shown that certain subdomains of norm-euclidean domains are not euclidean with respect to any function, so we can't always make observations about subdomains from our knowledge of larger ones.