In the following statement, it seems "mod" serves two separate functions.
$(ab)\textrm{ mod } n \equiv \big((a\textrm{ mod } n)\cdot(b\textrm{ mod } n)\big)\textrm{ mod } n$
- There is the use as a qualification of a statement about equivalence, as in the final "mod n": "these two expressions (LHS and RHS of $\equiv$) are equivalent mod n."
- There is the use as an operator applied to a single expression, as in all the other occurences.
Is there any ambiguity here? Any potential mathematical hazards that can arise from not being clear about the distinction?
EDIT - thinking on, I can see that the final "mod n" could be interpreted in either sense...)