0
$\begingroup$

Let $(X, \mathcal{M}, \mu)$ be a measueable space, and let $f: \mathbb{R}\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be nonnegative $f(x)\geq0$ and measurable. Let $E_n=\{x\in \mathbb{R} : f(x)\geq \frac{1}{n}\}$. Show the following result

$$\int_{\mathbb{R}}fdm=\lim_{n \to \infty} \int_{[-n,n]}fdm=\lim_{n\to \infty} \int_{E_n}fdm.$$

I was thinking maybe we can assume $f\chi_{E_n}\leq f$, monotone increasing sequence of nonnegative measurable functions, and then apply monotone convergence theorem, but I am not sure that we can find such increasing sequence, as $\frac{1}{n}$ is decreasing.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Does $E_n\subset E_{n+1}$? $\endgroup$
    – amsmath
    Commented Oct 23, 2021 at 2:03
  • $\begingroup$ draw pictures is my suggestion $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 23, 2021 at 2:16
  • $\begingroup$ $E_n \nearrow E = \{x\in \mathbb{R} : f(x) > 0\}$ and $[-n, n] \nearrow \mathbb{R}$. Now apply monotone convergence theorem and note that since $f = 0$ on $E^c$, $\int_{\mathbb{R}}f\,dm = \int_{E}f\,dm$. $\endgroup$
    – Mason
    Commented Oct 23, 2021 at 22:13

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

Both sequences $$f\chi_{E_n},f\chi_{[-n,n]}$$ are increasing because $f$ is non-negative, $E_n\subset E_{n+1}$, and $[-n,n]\subset [-(n+1),n+1]$. Now using monotone convergence theorem we have $$\lim_{n\to \infty} \int_{E_n}f dm=\lim_{n\to \infty} \int_{\mathbb R}f\chi_{E_n} dm=\int_{\mathbb R}\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(f\chi_{E_n}\right) dm=\int_\mathbb R f dm$$ and similarly $$\lim_{n\to \infty} \int_{[-n,n]}f dm=\lim_{n\to \infty} \int_{\mathbb R}f\chi_{[-n,n]} dm=\int_{\mathbb R}\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(f\chi_{[-n,n]}\right) dm=\int_\mathbb R f dm\ .$$

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you, that's helpful! I am still having trouble with changing the bounds of the integral. How do we go from $\mathbb{R}$ to $[-n,n]$ to $E_n$? I know we have independence of representation but I am having trouble applying it here. $\endgroup$
    – user863437
    Commented Oct 23, 2021 at 16:29
  • $\begingroup$ I added some details in order to get things more clear. I hope it helps. $\endgroup$
    – k1.M
    Commented Oct 23, 2021 at 17:01

You must log in to answer this question.