On my textbook of Maths for students of my high school (there are really only two such limits) I have found, for example, a limit of a succession with this solution:
$$\color{magenta}{\lim_{n\to +\infty} \log_2\left(\frac{n^3}{n^4+2}\right)=-\infty} \tag 1$$
I am a bit perplexed about the result. In fact it is true that $\forall n\in \Bbb N\smallsetminus \{0\}$ we have:
$$\frac{n^3}{n^4+2}>0$$ and the domain of the logarithm is guaranteed ($n\ne 0$). Being
$$\lim_{n\to +\infty} \log_2\left(\frac{n^3}{n^4+2}\right)=\log_2\left(\lim_{n\to +\infty} \frac{n^3}{n^4+2}\right)$$
but $$\lim_{n\to +\infty} \frac{n^3}{n^4+2}=0$$
hence it has no sense to calculate $$\require{cancel} \color{red}{\cancel{\log_2 0}}$$
Considering the function
$$y=f(x)=\log_2\left(\frac{x^3}{x^4+2}\right) \tag 2$$
we know that the domain is $]0,+\infty[$. The allowable limits are for $x\to 0^+$ and $x\to +\infty$.
It is true, instead, that
$$\color{green}{\lim_{x\to 0^+}\log_2\left(\frac{x^3}{x^4+2}\right)=-\infty}$$
but if I plot the $(2)$ with Desmos, when I compute the $\lim\limits_{x\to +\infty}\log_2\left(\frac{x^3}{x^4+2}\right)$ I have precisely $-\infty$.
So why must the limit of $(1)$ be $-\infty$? What am I doing wrong and why? So it must be $\lim_n \log_c a_n=-\infty$ ($c>0 \wedge c\ne 1$), when $\{a_n\}\to 0$, i.e. infinitesimal?