Fix integers $m,n\geq0$.
Do we have the inequality $\displaystyle\sum_{a=0}^m\sum_{b=0}^n\cos(abx)>0$ for all $x\in\mathbb{R}$?
We can also write this function as \begin{align*} \sum_{a=0}^m\sum_{b=0}^n\cos(abx)&=m+n+1+\sum_{a=1}^m\sum_{b=1}^n\cos(abx)\\ &=m+n+1+\sum_{a=1}^m\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{\sin((n+1/2)ax)}{\sin(ax/2)}-1\right)\\ &=\frac{m}{2}+n+1+\frac{1}{2}\sum_{a=1}^mD_n(ax), \end{align*} where $$D_n(x)=\frac{\sin((n+1/2)x)}{\sin(x/2)}$$ is the Dirichlet kernel (up to a factor of $2\pi$, depending on your convention).
Using this formula, it is easy to check the conjecture for small values of $m$ and $n$ (desmos link).