I am kind of stuck with this problem. I know the basics of induction proof and how to use it to prove stuff about basic arithmetic and geometric series and so on, but the problem below seems a bit new and unfamiliar to me.
The problem is about proving how a Taylor series develops using induction proof.
The problem goes like this:
Given the function $f(x)=\frac{1}{x^2}$
Prove by induction that $f^{(k)}(x)=\frac{(-1)^{k}(k+1)!}{x^{k+2}}$ for all $k\geq 0$.
Is there anyone out there who is willing to provide a solution to this problem and help me and expand my horizon/ help in my learning?
All help is welcomed and appreciated.