Let $f$ be a continuous function.
We know $f$ is differentiable at $x = a$ if the limit $$\lim_{x\to a}\frac{f(x)-f(a)}{x-a}$$ exists. (Normal derivative)
And, if $f$ is differentiable at $x = a$ then we can write $f'(a)$ as $$f'(a)=\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(a+h)-f(a-h)}{2h}$$
But the limit (symmetric derivative) $$\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(x+h)-f(x-h)}{2h}$$ can exist when $f$ is not differntiable at $x = a$
For example, a function $x \to |x|$ is not differentiable at $x = 0$ but the limit exists : $$\lim_{h\to 0}\frac{f(0+h)-f(0-h)}{2h} = \lim_{h\to 0}\frac{|h|-|-h|}{2h} = 0$$
I checked some examples ($f$ is not differntiable but the symmetric derivative exists) and I got zero for all $f$.
So my question is :
If $f$ is not differentiable at $x=a$ and symmetric derivative exists at $x=a$, then the symmetric derivative of function $f$ at $x=a$ must be zero? (How to prove? or I want to know counterexample.)
Is there any nice approach to understand symmetric derivative? (I understood this as a slope of two points.)
Thanks for your help.