Let $f(x)$ be a bilateral Laplace transform of a measure $\mu$: $$ f(x)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty} e^{-xt} d\mu(y). $$ Suppose that $f(x)$ converges absolutely in $(a,b)$, and $(a,b)$ do not contain the origin. It is always true that $f(x)$ is analytic in $(a,b)$? Or it is true just for finite measure $\mu$?
Moreover, if the measure $\mu$ is finite, then $(a,b)$ must contain the origin?
Thank you!