I am currently working on the following problem from P. Chadwick's Continuum Mechanics and was wondering if my appraoch is correct (and if it is, if it is rigorous enough):
Let $u,v \in \mathbb{R}^3$. Show that the trace of a $(1,1)$ tensor $T = u \otimes v$ gives the scaler $u \cdot v \in \mathbb{R},$ i.e., $\text{tr}(u \otimes v) = u \cdot v$.
A few things to note before my approach is that in my course we are only considering second-order tensors, $\cdot$ is the usual dot product on $ \mathbb{R}^3$ ( i.e., $u \cdot v = u_1v_1+u_2v_2+u_3v_3$), and $u \otimes v := \begin{bmatrix} u_1 v_1 & u_1 v_2 & u_1 v_3 \\ u_2 v_1 & u_2 v_2 & u_2 v_3 \\ u_3 v_1 & u_3 v_2 & u_3 v_3 \\ \end{bmatrix}.$ (our version of the tensor product: the outer product).
I feel like this problem is really easy, but my textbook's solution is using the scaler triple product to show this. Here is what I have written so far:
Since we are given what $u \cdot v$ is, we can expand this expression as $u_1v_1+u_2v_2+u_3v_3$. We also know that each entry of the matrix $u \otimes v$ is of the form $u_{i}v_{j}$, thus since the trace of the matrix $u \otimes v$ is the sum of the diagonal elements we have that $$\text{tr}(u \otimes v) = u_1v_1+u_2v_2+u_3v_3=u \cdot v.$$ Is this enough for this proof? Or is there a more rigorous way of showing this?
\cdot
for dot products. It's much more visually appealing. $\endgroup$