If $p \nmid r$ is an odd prime, show $$p^3 \mid (r^{p(p-1)} - 1) \Rightarrow p^2 \mid (r^{p-1}-1)$$
My attempt:
$$r^{p(p-1)}-1 = (\color{red}{r^{p-1}-1})(\color{blue}{r^{(p-1)(p-1)} +r^{(p-1)(p-2)} + \cdots + r^{(p-1)2 }+r^{p-1}+1}) = \color{red}{X}\color{blue}{Y}$$
$p \mid \color{red}{X}$ by Euler,
and $\color{blue}{Y} \equiv (\underbrace{1+1+\cdots}_{p-1\text{ times}})+1 =p\equiv 0 \pmod p$.
So the right hand side $\color{red}{X}\color{blue}{Y}$ is divisible by $p^2$.
How to show the other $p$ doesn't divide $\color{blue}{Y}$ ?