I recently came across an "interpolation" scheme of the form $$ P_1\frac{(1-x)^3}{6} + P_2\left(\frac{x^3}{2} - x^2 + \frac{2}{3}\right) + P_3 \left(-\frac{x^3}{2} + \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x}{2} + \frac{1}{6}\right) + P_4 \frac{x^3}{6} $$ where $0 < x < 1$ is the interpolation weight and the $P_n$ appear to be evenly-spaced points.
I put "interpolation" because the curve does not necessarily pass through any of the points at $0$ or $1$, nor is it guaranteed to pass through $P_1$ or $P_4$ in that interval. Other notable properties are that it is monotone on $0 < x < 1$ if the $P_n$ are and it is symmetric under the transform $x\rightarrow 1-x, P_1 \leftrightarrow P_4, P_2 \leftrightarrow P_3$.
I'm trying to figure out two things. First, is this a known interpolation scheme? It has some apparent similarity to Bezier curves, but it's not the same. Second, why would this scheme be chosen over one that actually passes through the points?