Let $G$ be a finite solvable group with an abelian Sylow $p$ subgroup $S$.
A classic theorem of Burnside says that $S$ has a normal complement if and only if the Centralizer of $S$ in $G$ is equal to the Normalizer of $S$ in $G$. Since the centralizer is contained in the normalizer we can just look at the index. So for any group $G$ let ${\rm icn}_p(G)$ be the index of the centralizer of a Sylow $p$ subgroup in its normalizer.
First just consider $p=2$, but much of this, if not all, could be independent of $p$. I would like to know how ${\rm icn}$ behaves w.r.t. subgroups.
If $G$ is solvable with abelian Sylow $2$ subgroup $S$ is it true for every subgroup $H \subset G$ that ${\rm icn}(H) \le {\rm icn}(G)$? Moreover is it true that ${\rm icn}(H)$ is a divisor of ${\rm icn}(G)$?
These seem like they should be elementary, but I don't see how to approach.
A quick computation shows that if solvability and abelian are not required, then the second statement about divisors is false, but the first inequality still seems to hold. An example of this is the symmetric group $S_4$. Here the Sylow 2 subgroup is not abelian, but for each subgroup of $K$ of $S_4$, $icn(H)$ is still not greater than 4. In fact $icn(S_4) = 4$, and $A_4 \subset S_4$ gives $icn(A_4) = 3$
Is this true for any finite group $G$ and subgroup $H \subset G$ that ${\rm icn}(H) \le{\rm icn}(G)$?
Thanks for your help