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Here $n$ is any integer. This is my attempt at solving the question:

Since $n \pi+\frac{\pi}{4}$ is irational, $f(x)=\cos(x)$. Let $h$ be a infinitesimally small positive quantity and $n=1$ $$ RHL=\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow0}f\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+h\right)$$ $$LHL=\lim\limits_{h\rightarrow0}f\left(\frac{\pi}{4}-h\right)$$

This is where my confusion begins, if we assume $h$ to be an infinitesimally small irrational number in the first case and infinitesimally small rational number in the second case then the function will be discontinuous.

If we assume $h$ to be an infinitesimally small rational number in the first case and infinitesimally small rational number in the second case then the function will be continuous.

However If we assume $h$ to be an infinitesimally small irrational number in the first case and infinitesimally small irrational number in the second case then the function will be discontinuous. So how can a function like this exist, and where am I going wrong?

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  • $\begingroup$ $n\pi +\frac \pi 4$ is rational? How's that? $\endgroup$
    – Alan
    Aug 3, 2021 at 13:07
  • $\begingroup$ Hint: angle-addition. $\endgroup$
    – Integrand
    Aug 3, 2021 at 13:13
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    $\begingroup$ There are no infinitesimally small real numbers. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 3, 2021 at 14:25
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    $\begingroup$ No there is no limitation to the lhl/rhl method. My objection is related to the notion of infinitesimals as used in your question. There is a way to learn / develop calculus using infinitesimals, but a majority of courses and textbooks don't use it. So the more popular version is the one without any infinitesimals. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 4, 2021 at 15:51
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    $\begingroup$ I don't use infinitesimals. There is no difference between lhl and rhl here. Depending on whether $(\pi/4)+h$ is rational or irrational the limit should equal $\lim_{h\to 0}\sin(\pi/4+h)$ or $\lim_{h\to 0}\cos(\pi/4+h)$ and both these are equal as $\cos\pi/4=\sin\pi/4$. Same happens with left hand limit (replace $h$ with $-h$). The function will be continuous at only those points $c$ where $\cos c=\sin c$. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 5, 2021 at 6:16

2 Answers 2

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Since the point $n\pi+(\pi/4)$ under consideration, say $a$, is irrational we have $f(a) =\cos a$ and thus $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|\sin x - \cos a|=|\sin x - \sin a|$$ as $\cos a =\sin a$ when $x$ is rational and $$|f(x) - f(a) |=|\cos x-\cos a|$$ if $x$ is irrational.

Now observe that both the differences $|\sin x-\sin a|$ and $|\cos x - \cos a|$ never exceed $|x-a|$. Why??

Well, $$|\sin x - \sin a|=|2\cos((x+a)/2)\sin((x-a)/2)|\leq 2|(x-a)/2|=|x-a|$$ and similarly one can handle the other difference.

Hence $$0\leq |f(x) - f(a) |\leq |x-a|$$ If you are aware of definition of limit then the above inequality allows you to take $\delta =\epsilon $ and show that $\lim_{x\to a} f(x) =f(a) $.

On the other hand if you are not aware of definition of limit you can use Squeeze theorem to conclude $\lim_{x\to a} f(x) =f(a) $. And therefore the function is continuous at all points $a$ of the form $a=n\pi+(\pi/4)$.

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  • $\begingroup$ How did you get the inequality $|2cos((x+a)/2)sin((x-a)/2)|<(x-a)$ $\endgroup$
    – Tatai
    Aug 4, 2021 at 8:32
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    $\begingroup$ @Sunaina: remember that both $\sin, \cos$ don't exceed $1$ in absolute value and hence we can get rid of $\cos ((x+a) /2)$. The expression is thus $\leq 2|\sin((x-a)/2)|$. Next use the fundamental inequality of $\sin x$ namely $|\sin x|\leq |x|$ for all real $x$ (this does not hold for $\cos $). Hence we get the expression $\leq 2|(x-a)/2|=|x-a|$. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 4, 2021 at 8:37
  • $\begingroup$ @Sunaina: you should remember the basic inequalities satisfied by common functions. They are quite useful in calculus. For example $\log x\leq x - 1$ for all positive $x$ and $e^x\geq 1+x$ for all $x$. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 4, 2021 at 8:38
  • $\begingroup$ Is continuity a requirement for the squeeze theorem to be applied, or does the successful application of squeeze theorem show that the function is continuous. I.e is finding a limit using squeeze theorem enough to prove the function is continuous? $\endgroup$
    – Tatai
    Aug 4, 2021 at 8:46
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    $\begingroup$ @Sunaina: squeeze theorem is a tool to find limits in certain situations. It has nothing to do with continuity. Applying squeeze theorem in my answer gives you $\lim_{x\to a} |f(x) - f(a) |=0$ and this implies $\lim_{x\to a} (f(x) - f(a)) =0 $ and this implies $\lim_{x\to a} f(x) =f(a) $ which finally means (by definition) that $f$ is continuous at $a$. $\endgroup$
    – Paramanand Singh
    Aug 4, 2021 at 8:49
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Let $x_n = n \pi + \frac{\pi}4$. Note that $$\sin x_n = \cos x_n=\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt 2} = f( x_n).\tag{1}\label{1}$$ So, intuitively, if you get close enough to $ x_n$ the function will approach the value $\frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt 2}$.

More formally, fix $\varepsilon > 0$. Since $\sin x$ is continuous in in $x_n$, there exists $\delta_1$ such that $$\left|\sin x - \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt 2}\right| < \varepsilon$$ for all $x$ such that $|x - x_n| < \delta_1$. Similarly, by continuity of $\cos x$ in $x_n$, there exists $\delta_2$ such that $$\left|\cos x - \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt 2}\right|< \varepsilon$$ for all $x$ such that $|x - x_n| < \delta_2$.

Now choose $\delta = \min(\delta_1,\delta_2)$ and you get $$\left| f(x) - \frac{(-1)^n}{\sqrt 2}\right| < \varepsilon$$ for every $x$ that satisfies $$|x-x_n| < \delta,$$ which implies, together with \eqref{1}, continuity of $f$ in $x_n$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you but I have some questions. What does $\delta$ and $\varepsilon$ mean here? What do you mean by fixing the value? $\endgroup$
    – Tatai
    Aug 3, 2021 at 13:40
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    $\begingroup$ Are you familiar with the definition of limit? E.g. brilliant.org/wiki/epsilon-delta-definition-of-a-limit $\endgroup$
    – dfnu
    Aug 3, 2021 at 13:44
  • $\begingroup$ so can we say directly for any function l(x) which is f(x) at some points at p(x) and other points that if both f(x) and p(x) are continuous and converge at a point x, l(x) will also be continuous at x? $\endgroup$
    – Tatai
    Aug 5, 2021 at 4:33
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    $\begingroup$ @Sunaina yes you can say that $\endgroup$
    – dfnu
    Aug 5, 2021 at 6:50

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