I am trying to prove the following theorem below. I have also found the following theorem here (see Theorem 2.1 that clearly covers this but no proof is given). I don't want to make these evenly spaced intervals for this theorem as they could be any length. I am wanting to prove this formally from start to finish; any help would be greatly appreciated!
Definition: Let $f(x)$ be a continuous function on $[a, b]$. Then, we define $\int_a^b f(x):=\lim_{n\to \infty}\sum_{i=0}^nf(x_i^*)\,\frac{b-a}{n}$.
Theorem: Let $f(x)$ be a continuous function on $[a, b]$. Then, $\int_a^b f(x)=\lim_{\text{mesh} \to 0}\sum_{i=0}^nf(x_i^*)\,\Delta x_i$ as shown in the definition here.
Proof:
\begin{align*} \lim_{\text{mesh} \to 0}\sum_{i=0}^nf(x_i^*)\,\Delta x_i&= \lim_{\text{mesh} \to 0}\sum_{i=0}^nf(x_i^*)\,\Delta x_i\\ &= \lim_{\max\{\Delta x_1, \Delta x_2, \ldots, \Delta x_n\} \to 0}\sum_{i=0}^nf(x_i^*)\,\Delta x_i \text{(CAN'T DO THIS)} \end{align*}
I have made some progress on the following. The limit in the second equation is NOT an Epsilon-Delta. Read the article here and see minimalrho's answer (note order is refinement here). This order makes is needed in regards to partitions to make it be well-defined. Now, look at the second definition here for Riemann Integral. It is equivalent to the first definition of a Riemann integral in that page which in my honest opinion seems easier to use. Now, the first definition kind of looks like the Epsilon-Delta but in NO WAY SHAPE OR FORM is it related. Now, we can use the first definition of Wikipedia in that article. Note the definition where $n\to \infty$ is $F(b)-F(a)$ by the FTOC but that requires the antiderivative to exist.