Show that $\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sqrt{\sin\theta}\mathrm d\theta \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\sqrt{\sin \theta}} \mathrm d \theta=\pi$ 
Show that $$\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \sqrt{\sin\theta}\mathrm d\theta \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\sqrt{\sin \theta}} \mathrm d \theta=\pi$$

My book wrote that
$$=\frac{\Gamma(\frac{3}{4})\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(\frac{5}{4})} \cdot \frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{4}) \Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(3/4)}$$
My work says that there wasn't $\Gamma(5/4)$ in the denominator of the left one.
$$\beta(\frac{\frac{1}{2}+1}{2},\frac{1}{2})\beta(\frac{-\frac{1}{2}+1}{2},\frac{1}{2})$$
$$\frac{\Gamma(\frac{3}{4})\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(\frac{3}{4}+1)}\cdot \frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{4})\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2})}$$
$$\frac{\Gamma(\frac{3}{4})\pi}{2\Gamma(\frac{7}{4})} \cdot \frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{4})}{2\Gamma(\frac{3}{4})}$$
For that reason, my work doesn't match with their even answer.
 A: You made a small calculation error. In the second expression you wrote $1$ instead of $\frac12$:
$$\beta\left(\frac{\color{red}{\frac{1}{2}+1}}{2},\color{green}{\frac{1}{2}}\right)\beta\left(\frac{-\frac{1}{2}+1}{2},\frac{1}{2}\right)$$
$$\frac{\Gamma\left(\color{red}{\frac{3}{4}}\right)\Gamma\left(\color{green}{\frac{1}{2}}\right)}{2\Gamma(\color{red}{\frac{3}{4}}+\color{green}{\frac{1}{2})}}\cdot \frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{4})\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2})}$$
$$\frac{\Gamma(\color{red}{\frac{3}{4}})\pi}{2\Gamma(\color{green}{\frac{5}{4}})} \cdot \frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{4})}{2\Gamma(\frac{3}{4})}$$
A: Your method was correct, you just made a small mistake in the simplification. It is true that
\begin{align}
\int_0^{\dfrac{\pi}{2}} \sqrt{\sin\theta}\mathrm d\theta \int_0^{\dfrac{\pi}{2}} \frac{1}{\sqrt{\sin \theta}} \mathrm d \theta
\end{align}
equals
\begin{align}
& \beta(\frac{3}{4}, \frac{1}{2})\; \beta(\frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{2}) \\
\\
&=\frac{\Gamma(\frac{3}{4})\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(\frac{3}{4}+\color{red}{\frac{1}{2}})}\cdot \frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{4})\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{2})} \\
\\
&=\frac{\Gamma(\frac{3}{4})\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(\frac{5}{4})} \cdot \frac{\Gamma(\frac{1}{4}) \Gamma(\frac{1}{2})}{2\Gamma(3/4)}
\end{align}
which is the step from your book. Then using $\Gamma(\frac{1}{2})\Gamma(\frac{1}{2}) = \Gamma(\frac{1}{2})\Gamma(1-\frac{1}{2}) = \frac{\pi}{sin(\pi / 2)} = \pi$ is correct, and will lead to the answer.
