I know that you can prove that a bijective $f:X\to Y$ is a homeomorphism if and only if $A$ is open in $X$ if and only if $f(A)$ is open in $Y$, and that a bijective $f:X\to Y$ is a homeomorphism if and only if $f$ and $f^{-1}$ both map open sets to open sets, meaning that you have to either assume $f$ to be continuous or that $f^{-1}$ also maps open sets to open sets.
Could it hold that a bijective $f:X\to Y$ is a homeomorphism if and only $f$ maps open sets to open sets? I can prove the direction that $f$ being a homeomorphism implies that $f$ maps open sets to open sets, and to the other direction i can show that if $f$ maps open sets to open sets then $f^{-1}$ is continuous, but i can't seem to get the continuity of $f$ from that. Is it possible?