Let $f=f(u,v)$ be a (given) solution of the following PDE,
$$ \begin{equation} \frac{\partial^2 f}{\partial u\partial v}=f,\label{1}\tag{$*$} \end{equation} $$
and consider the overdetermined system(s) of PDEs
$$ \begin{cases} \dfrac{\partial x}{\partial u}=f\cos\left(u-v\right)\\ \\ \dfrac{\partial x}{\partial v}=\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial v}\sin\left(u-v\right)\\ \\ \dfrac{\partial y}{\partial u}=f\sin\left(u-v\right)\\ \\ \dfrac{\partial y}{\partial v}=-\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial v}\cos\left(u-v\right). \end{cases} $$
Since $f$ solves \eqref{1} it is guaranteed that $$ \frac{\partial^2 x}{\partial u\partial v}=\frac{\partial^2 x}{\partial v\partial u} $$ and similarly for $y$, so the system is well posed. The question is, is it possible to write down a general solution for $x(u,v)$ and $y(u,v)$ in terms of integrals of $f$ ?
If I try, for instance, to integrate the first equation to get $$ x=\int \mathrm{d}u\;f\cos(u-v)+g(v), $$ with $g(v)$ some unknown function of $v$, and then plug in the second equation for $x$, I cannot solve for $g(v)$, so I need to try some other ansatz.