(Preamble: This question is tangentially related to this earlier post.)
Denote the classical sum of divisors of the positive integer $x$ to be $\sigma(x)=\sigma_1(x)$. Denote the abundancy index of $x$ by $I(x)=\sigma(x)/x$. Finally, denote the deficiency of $x$ by $D(x)=2x-\sigma(x)$.
The topic of odd perfect numbers likely needs no introduction.
Let $p^k m^2$ be an odd perfect number with special prime $p$, satisfying $p \equiv k \equiv 1 \pmod 4$ and $\gcd(p,m)=1$.
Dris conjectured in (Dris (2008)) and (Dris (2012)) that the inequality $p^k < m$ always holds. Brown was the first one to prove in a preprint (Brown (2016)) that the weaker inequality $p < m$ holds in general. However, recent evidence suggests that the Dris Conjecture that $p^k < m$ may in fact be false. (If we could rule out or show that $m < p^k$ follows from the remaining two cases in the linked question, then we will have a disproof for both the Dris Conjecture and the Descartes-Frenicle-Sorli Conjecture that $k=1$.)
Here is my question:
If $p^k m^2$ is an odd perfect number with special prime $p$, then which is larger: $D(p^k)$ or $D(m)$?
MY ATTEMPT
Since $p$ is prime, we have $$1<I(p^k)=\frac{\sigma(p^k)}{p^k}=\frac{p^{k+1}-1}{p^k (p - 1)}<\frac{p^{k+1}}{p^k (p - 1)}=\frac{p}{p-1}.$$ Now, because $p$ is a prime satisfying $p \equiv 1 \pmod 4$, we have the lower bound $p \geq 5$, whereupon we obtain the upper bound $$I(p^k)<\frac{p}{p-1} \leq \frac{5}{4}.$$ Note that, since $p^k m^2$ is perfect and $\gcd(p,m)=1$, then we have $$2=I(p^k m^2)=I(p^k)I(m^2) \iff I(m^2) = \frac{2}{I(p^k)}.$$ This implies that we have the lower bound $$I(m^2) > \frac{2}{(5/4)} = \frac{8}{5},$$ from which we finally get $$1 < I(p^k) < \frac{5}{4} < \frac{8}{5} < I(m^2) < 2,$$ since $m^2$ is a proper factor of the perfect number $p^k m^2$, and is therefore deficient.
But we know that $$I(p^k) < \dfrac{5}{4} < \sqrt{\dfrac{8}{5}}< \sqrt{I(m^2)} < I(m) < I(m^2) < 2$$
In particular, we have $$0 < 2 - I(m) < 2 - I(p^k) < 1$$ $$0 < \dfrac{D(m)}{m} < \dfrac{D(p^k)}{p^k} < 1$$ $$0 < D(m) < \frac{m}{p^k}\cdot{D(p^k)} < m.$$
We therefore have the implication $$m < p^k \implies D(m) < D(p^k).$$
Alas, this is where I get stuck.