I've got a question about the convergence of a series during studying analysis.
If I know that a series of positive real numbers $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n$$ converge, why does $$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\left(\frac{a_n}{n^p}\right)^\frac{1}{2}$$ also converge for $p>1$?
Although I know about many convergence tests, I don't know how to apply those tests for this case. Since this problem is the form of "series A converge → series B converge", I've been thinking that it must be verified by using some "comparison" tests. Is this thinking correct?
All advice is welcome^_^
Thanks.