I am partly repeating myself here again. Is this a correct relation between the Riemann zeta function and the Prime zeta function?
$$ \zeta (s) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n^{s}}$$
$\displaystyle \log(\zeta (s)) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{a_{n}}{n^{s}}$ where $\displaystyle a_{1} = 0\;$, $\displaystyle a_{n} = \frac{\Lambda(n)}{\log(n)}$ and $\Lambda(n)$ is the Mangoldt function defined by $\displaystyle \Lambda(n) = \log(p)$ if $n = p^{k}$ for $p$ a prime.
$\displaystyle ω_{1}(\log(\zeta (s))) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\log(a_{n})}{n^{s}},$ where $ω_{1}(\;)$ is an operation and $\displaystyle \log(a_n) = 0$ if $a_n = 0$ $$ω_{1}(\log(\zeta (s)))\zeta (s) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{b_{n}}{n^{s}}$$
$\displaystyle ω_{2}(ω_{1}(\log(\zeta (s)))\zeta (s)) = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{e^{b_{n}}}{n^{s}}\;$ where $ω_{2}(\;)$ is another operation and $\displaystyle e^{b_{n}}=\exp(b_{n})$
$$\sum\limits_{p\;\text{prime}} \frac1{p^s} = \log(ω_2(ω_1(\log(\zeta (s)))\zeta (s)))$$