A friend of mine proposed me this integral which I find to be very interesting.
I managed to find with the help of software that: $$\int _0^{\frac{\pi }{2}}x\ln \left(\sin \left(x\right)\right)\ln ^2\left(\cos \left(x\right)\right)\:dx=\frac{155}{128}\zeta \left(5\right)+\frac{13}{32}\zeta \left(2\right)\zeta \left(3\right)-\operatorname{Li}_5\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)$$ $$-\frac{49}{32}\ln \left(2\right)\zeta \left(4\right)-\frac{5}{6}\ln ^3\left(2\right)\zeta \left(2\right)+\frac{1}{120}\ln ^5\left(2\right).$$ Where $\zeta \left(z\right)$ denotes the Riemann zeta function and $\operatorname{Li}_n\left(z\right)$ denotes the Polylogarithm function.
If $x=\tan\left(t\right)$ is used it yields: $$\frac{1}{4}\int _0^{\infty }\frac{\arctan \left(x\right)\ln \left(x\right)\ln ^2\left(1+x^2\right)}{1+x^2}\:dx-\frac{1}{8}\int _0^{\infty }\frac{\arctan \left(x\right)\ln ^3\left(1+x^2\right)}{1+x^2}\:dx.$$ I know of ways to evaluate the latter integral but the former is very difficult and the techniques that work for the $2$nd do not work for the $1$st.
Integrating by parts gives: $$-\frac{1}{2}\int _0^{\frac{\pi }{2}}x^2\cot \left(x\right)\ln ^2\left(\cos \left(x\right)\right)\:dx-\int _0^{\frac{\pi }{2}}x^2\tan \left(x\right)\ln \left(\sin \left(x\right)\right)\ln \left(\cos \left(x\right)\right)\:dx.$$ And I find myself in the same situation where I can evaluate the $1$st integral but the techniques that work for it aren't as effective for the $2$nd, are there any better approaches for the main integral?
Please do not post results without proving them since that is not what I'm looking for, thanks.