I was reading a proof of the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality (elementary form). However, I was unable to understand some part of it. Here is the proof:
Proof: Consider the following quadratic polynomial $$f(x)=\sum_ {i=1}^ n (a_ix-b_i)^2=(\sum_ {i=1}^ n a_i^2)x^2-2(\sum_ {i=1}^ n a_ib_i)x+\sum_ {i=1}^ n b_i^2$$ $\color{red}{\textrm{Since $f(x) \geq 0$ for any $x \in \mathbb{R}$, it follows that the discriminant of $f(x)$ is negative or zero}}$, i.e., $$4(\sum_ {i=1}^ n a_ib_i)^2-4(\sum_ {i=1}^ n a_i^2)(\sum_ {i=1}^ n b_i^2) \leq 0$$ This follows the desired inequality. $\blacksquare$
I am unable to understand the red part. I understand that $f(x) \geq 0$ for any $x \in \mathbb{R}$. But how does this imply that the discriminant is negative or zero?